the correct option is C.
The x-intercept of both functions g(x) and f(x) occur at point (1, 0).
Now, we need to find where g(x) > f(x) and f(x) > g(x)
We know that the greater the base of a logaritmic function is, the faster it will grow/decay.
For that reason, we can say that g(x) > f(x) on (1, +inf).
Now, when x<1 then y<0. So on the interval (0, 1) the function g(x) will decay much faster than the function f(x), so we can say that f(x) > g(x) on (0, 1). So the correct option is C.
Check the graph, to verify all this.
yes because there is exactly one y value for every x value
for function there can't be more than one value for every x value
we know that 60 seconds equals 1 minute and 60 minutes 1 hour
44 ft 60 sec 60 min 158400 ft
* * =
1 sec 1 min 1 hour hour
we know that there are 5280 ft per mile
158400 ft 1 mile 30 miles
1 hour 5280 ft 1 hour
so in 1 hour it can travel 30 miles